10-26-2011, 04:33 AM
Shalom,
Mr Director said: "It is possible that the house owner might have made a contract that he will only sell through one of those real estate agencies that is advertising his house"
my question is: is such a contract legal in the jewish law for us? If it's legal, after how much time does it become invalid?
Mr Director said: "It is possible that the house owner might have made a contract that he will only sell through one of those real estate agencies that is advertising his house"
my question is: is such a contract legal in the jewish law for us? If it's legal, after how much time does it become invalid?