09-13-2012, 10:13 PM
Hi AskNoah,
As I'm trying to work out the details of the law of theft, I've read in the Divine Code the basic definition of theft and what makes one liable for theft, that it must be outright theft (although there is some debate about whether land is included), i.e., the taking of someone else's property without their volitional unforced consent.
What I would like to know is whether damage to a person's property or body is included in that capital offence prohibition or whether such acts are linked to theft and thus are forbidden but do not make one liable to get the death penalty. Seeing the basic definition of theft, personally, it seems like a forbidden act but not a capital crime. Am I wrong? Could you give some clarity please? If there is a source that I'm allowed to read, could you give that as well please?
Thanks and have a good new year.
As I'm trying to work out the details of the law of theft, I've read in the Divine Code the basic definition of theft and what makes one liable for theft, that it must be outright theft (although there is some debate about whether land is included), i.e., the taking of someone else's property without their volitional unforced consent.
What I would like to know is whether damage to a person's property or body is included in that capital offence prohibition or whether such acts are linked to theft and thus are forbidden but do not make one liable to get the death penalty. Seeing the basic definition of theft, personally, it seems like a forbidden act but not a capital crime. Am I wrong? Could you give some clarity please? If there is a source that I'm allowed to read, could you give that as well please?
Thanks and have a good new year.