06-24-2014, 09:42 PM
(This post was last modified: 07-13-2014, 06:37 PM by Director Michael.)
B"H
"The Divine Code", Part 6, topic 4:11:
If [a Gentile man] cohabits with an unmarried [Gentile] woman without [their] intention of marriage, whether or not the matter is known publicly, it does not render her married to him or give her a status of a "me’orasah" [Hebrew term for a betrothed woman], and it is mere licentiousness. Although such relations are not clearly forbidden for Gentiles, it is a repulsive act, even if done in a temporary fashion... From G-d's words, "Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and cling to his wife, and they shall become one flesh," it is the natural and appropriate way for a man to marry a woman and establish a family, One who deviates from this path is mistaken, and acts against G-d’s will in His creation of mankind and their character... [prostitution] is considered abhorrent for Gentiles. It is possible that it is only permitted for Gentiles in a temporary fashion, but not for a woman to practice prostitution on a regular basis... Shem’s decree [of punishment] was only for a woman who cohabited with an idolater but did not apply to cohabitation with another observer of the Noahide Commandments..."
This means that Gentiles have no explicit commandment not to fornicate.
However, Rabbi Weiner writes (Part VI, Chapter 4, footnote 142): "It appears that based on the concept explained in this chapter, the verse commanding Gentiles to "make the world settled" forbids them to do any action that logically causes a destruction of society, so prostitution must therefore be banned."
Does this mean that fornication is forbidden due to the logical obligation to make the world settled?
I.e., does the prohibition of fornication stem from a logical obligation?
"The Divine Code", Part 6, topic 4:11:
If [a Gentile man] cohabits with an unmarried [Gentile] woman without [their] intention of marriage, whether or not the matter is known publicly, it does not render her married to him or give her a status of a "me’orasah" [Hebrew term for a betrothed woman], and it is mere licentiousness. Although such relations are not clearly forbidden for Gentiles, it is a repulsive act, even if done in a temporary fashion... From G-d's words, "Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and cling to his wife, and they shall become one flesh," it is the natural and appropriate way for a man to marry a woman and establish a family, One who deviates from this path is mistaken, and acts against G-d’s will in His creation of mankind and their character... [prostitution] is considered abhorrent for Gentiles. It is possible that it is only permitted for Gentiles in a temporary fashion, but not for a woman to practice prostitution on a regular basis... Shem’s decree [of punishment] was only for a woman who cohabited with an idolater but did not apply to cohabitation with another observer of the Noahide Commandments..."
This means that Gentiles have no explicit commandment not to fornicate.
However, Rabbi Weiner writes (Part VI, Chapter 4, footnote 142): "It appears that based on the concept explained in this chapter, the verse commanding Gentiles to "make the world settled" forbids them to do any action that logically causes a destruction of society, so prostitution must therefore be banned."
Does this mean that fornication is forbidden due to the logical obligation to make the world settled?
I.e., does the prohibition of fornication stem from a logical obligation?