03-10-2014, 09:36 PM
Thank you, Reb, for your answer.
You said:
"- any seizure of personal property by a justice office may rightfully be done only by order of the court, for the purpose of a good and necessary reason in accordance with established righteous laws which are applied fairly (without favoritism or prejudice)."
That was very well said. Very well said. If this principle is breached, is that a fault in terms of theft, or in terms of injustice, or both?
Also, the modern police of today, are they a function/extension of courts (equivalent to the justice officer I was speaking of) or an extension of the ruling power? Since you accept the term "the law of the king/kingdom is law", then, if the police are an extension of the ruling party, does that entitle them to take away an individual's personal property under the edicts and laws of the ruling power? Does that give them more powers to take away a person's property?
You said:
"- any seizure of personal property by a justice office may rightfully be done only by order of the court, for the purpose of a good and necessary reason in accordance with established righteous laws which are applied fairly (without favoritism or prejudice)."
That was very well said. Very well said. If this principle is breached, is that a fault in terms of theft, or in terms of injustice, or both?
Also, the modern police of today, are they a function/extension of courts (equivalent to the justice officer I was speaking of) or an extension of the ruling power? Since you accept the term "the law of the king/kingdom is law", then, if the police are an extension of the ruling party, does that entitle them to take away an individual's personal property under the edicts and laws of the ruling power? Does that give them more powers to take away a person's property?