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Prostitution and adultery
This narrative indicates that harlotry was not specifically prohibited within the Seven Noahide Commandments. But the narrative also proves that harlotry was considered highly immoral, since Judah wanted to prevent his action from becoming known to the public. See verse 38:23; Rashi explains that it was considered "a disgrace." The courts have an obligation to outlaw harlotry, since it is destructive to the stability of the society.
Thank for your important question. The Torah Laws regarding these issues are explained in our book, "The Divine Code", Part 6 (The Prohibition of Forbidden Relations), p. 523-524:

" is forbidden for a Gentile man to marry a Jewess, or for a Gentile woman to marry a Jew, or for a Gentile to live with a Jewish person in a way of marriage, as G-d commanded the Jews (Deut. 7:3): 'You [Jews] shall not marry into them [the Gentiles], [and] do not give your daughter to their son, and you shall not take their daughter for your son.'"

The second part of the verse forbids a Jewish father from "giving" or "taking" a girl for this type of relationship, and if the girl is an adult she becomes responsible herself for acting in this prohibited manner.
Because the relationship is forbidden by Torah Law, therefore no Torah-Law status of actual marriage can be formed between a Jew and a Gentile, so this prohibition is separate from the issue of adultery.
Not only is this "marriage" type of relationship [a Jew and a Gentile living as husband and wife] forbidden for a Jew, but it is therefore also forbidden for a Gentile, as it is impossible to form a marriage lifestyle without the participation of both partners, and the Gentile would thereby be a partner to the Jew's sin.

Licentious relations between a Jew and a Gentile are also forbidden. If the woman is a Jew, see Deut. 23:18 and Lev. 18:19. If the man is a Jew, see Tractate Sanhedrin 81b-82a.
(06-26-2007, 05:57 AM)rabbiyitz Wrote: The Ramban (Nachmanides) interprets the verse in Genesis 2:24 "Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and cling to his wife" as follows: a man's intimate relationship with a woman should be to cling in marriage in the manner of society, and not like an animal which mates with another animal of the opposite sex randomly. Thus since prostitution is not clinging in marriage but a random act for the sake of physical gratification only, one who frequents prostitutes transgresses on the directive that his intimate relations should be in clinging to a wife. See also 1 Kings 14:24 - "There was also prostitution in the land; they did all the abominations of the nations that G-d had driven out from before the Children of Israel." Thus G-d considers prostitution as an abomination for the nations also.

The Shulkhan Aruch (the Code of Jewish Law) comments that after the flood, the nations had accepted upon themselves a prohibition against prostitution. But Bilaam opened the gates of immorality by recommending that the people of Midian and Moab adandon their daughters to prostitution in order to ensnare the Jews in sin. (Book of Numbers)

The Noahide courts are responsible to close houses of prostitution and fine and punish those who transgress, in order to preserve morality. So prostitution is forbidden to Jews and Noahides alike.



Can you please provide me with the source in the Shulchan Aruch for the nations accepting a prohibition against prostitution after the flood.
The source that Rabbi Yitz referred to is cited in "The Divine Code," Part VI (The Prohibition of Forbidden Relations), p. 522, footnote 145: Shulchan Aruch, Even Ha'Ezer ch. 177.

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