09-03-2012, 11:43 AM
If Er and Onan in Genesis 38 were punished for comitting coitus interruptus, which is a very ineffective way of preventing conception, then why would the use of condoms be allowed, which is almost 100% effective in preventing it? If condoms were available at that time, would have they still been punished? I also remember reading in The Divine Code that the use of condoms on a temporary basis for gentiles is permitted, but to use them on a permanent basis to prevent conception would not be allowed. Would this mean that a gentile man who does not want to ever have children should never get married and remain celebate forever unless it's a woman who is incapable of conceiving? Also why is the use of condoms considerd spilling seed only for Jewish men?