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Questions about Tehillim (Psalms)
#1
Hello Rabbi's and Director Schulman,

I was wondering what the word Selah meant in Psalms?
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#2
cbell14 Wrote:I was wondering what the word Selah meant in Psalms?

In the 24 books of the Hebrew Bible, this Hebrew word appears only in the Book of Psalms/Tehillim (many times), and in the Book of Habakuk (3 times). The first occurance in the Psalms is in verse 3:3. The Artscroll Tanach Series, Tehillim Volume 1, p. 75, has a commentary on the meaning of this word, and brings the following opinions:

The Talmud (Tractate Eruvin 54a) states that it means "forever" or "without an end," and points to verse 48:9 as a primary example.

Ibn Ezra says that it signifies a reaffirmation of a preceding statement, so it has the connotation of "true and certain." He also suggests that it is a musical instruction, indicating to a singer to raise the voice.
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#3
Recently I read about and began following the monthly schedule of saying all the Tehillim during prayer, but ever since reading 137, I find it difficult to say any of the Tehillim. I feel all the holiness of HaShem found in other Tehillim were wiped away at that moment. How can I reconcile my modern 'bleeding heart liberal' attitude and the sometimes abhorrently violent words found in the Tanakh? I try not to be judgmental, but it's difficult. I hear the same rhetoric nowadays and these particular verses seem to undermine the entire concept of HaShem being universal love.

Can you help me get my mind around this? Sad
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#4
It's clear that you misunderstood Psalm 137. The last two verses are not a prayer, G-d forbid. They are a prophetic statement of fact. That was in fact what happened when the Babylonian empire was conquered by invading armies from other nations. The soldiers who conquered Babylon did in fact display that happiness.
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#5
Director Michael Wrote:It's clear that you misunderstood Psalm 137. The last two verses are not a prayer, G-d forbid. They are a prophetic statement of fact. That was in fact what happened when the Babylonian empire was conquered by invading armies from other nations. The soldiers who conquered Babylon did in fact display that happiness.

Wow. Such a simple explanation really is an eye-opener. Prior to asking here, I looked around the Internet for insights into this issue and couldn't find anything as clear as this. Thanks so much! Shy
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#6
and... what's the most appropriate place in the house to do it?



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#7
If you pray or recite Tehillim (Psalms), it should be in a language you understand, and you should try to obtain a translation from an Orthodox Jewish publishing source, to be sure it is reliable.

Since the recitation of Psalms is considered to be both in the category of prayer to G-d and learning the Written Torah, it should be in a respectable place - e.g. not in a bathroom, or a bathhouse, or in a place where there is excrement, filth or bad odor. For more details, see the book "The Divine Code," Part I, chapter 6, on the subject of prayer:

https://asknoah.org/books/the-divine-code
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#8
Shalom

A few small queries;

1. Should one preferably continue praying if interrupted (by people)? And is there here a difference between being in the middle of a single psalm; and a sequence of, let us say, the Tikkun HaKlali etc.

2. May the Tikkun HaKlali be said for many souls? (A single chain of prayers for physical healing, i know, may be said for multiple people.)

3. Should a non-Jew begin saying the psalm of his year on the day of his lunar, or solar birthday?
And, though it might be out of place here: should/may an observant non-Jew go by the lunar cycle, and so count his lunar birthday, keeping the solar year secondary? Or is the non-Jew forever bound beneath the glare of the sun?


Thank you all
Have a Good Day
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#9
Joachim ben Noach Wrote:1. Should one preferably continue praying if interrupted (by people)?

Since there is not a fixed prayer liturgy for Gentiles, this is not a problem. But if one is going to begin to say a prayer with concentration and devotion, one should try to do so without interruption.

Quote:And is there here a difference between being in the middle of a single psalm; and a sequence of, let us say, the Tikkun HaKlali etc.

You can continue from the beginning of the verse in which you were interrupted.

Quote:2. May the Tikkun HaKlali be said for many souls? (A single chain of prayers for physical healing, i know, may be said for multiple people.)

Yes. Just try to mention the names of the people you are going to be praying for, and what their need is. When praying for a Gentile, one should try to mention the person's given names and the given names of his or her father. If the name of the father is not known, you can use "son/daughter of Noah" (or "ben/bas Noah" as the Hebrew form).
When praying for a Jew, one should try to mention the person's given names and the given names of his or her mother. If the name of the mother is not known, you can use "son/daughter of Sarah" (or "ben/bas Sara" as the Hebrew form).

Quote:3. Should a non-Jew begin saying the Psalm of his year on the day of his lunar, or solar birthday?
And, though it might be out of place here: should/may an observant non-Jew go by the lunar cycle, and so count his lunar birthday, keeping the solar year secondary? Or is the non-Jew forever bound beneath the glare of the sun?

Rabbi Moshe Weiner, author of "The Divine Code," says that a believing Noahide may choose to establish his birthday by the Hebrew lunar calender.

There are numerous Orthodos Jewish web sites with Hebrew calendars. For example: https://www.chabad.org/calendar/view/mon...lendar.htm

Note that in the Hebrew lunar calendar, the day day starts at sunset. So in determining your Hebrew birthdate from the Gregorian date, it's important to know if you were born between sunset and midnight, because that will shift the correspondence to the next day on the Hebrew calendar.
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#10
To be accurate, the word "daven" is a technical Torah-law term that only applies for Jews. It does not mean prayer in general. It is from the Aramaic phrase "d'Avuhon," meaning "from our fathers." This refers to the commands that the three Patriachs of the Jewish people, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, respectively gave for their male Israelite (Jewish) descendents (obligatory starting at the age of 13) to pray three times every day: morning, afternoon and evening. Gentiles are not obligated to "daven" - i.e. to pray every day within a specific time span during the day and night.

Here is the answer about this that was sent by Rabbi Moshe Weiner, author of "The Divine Code," Volume 1, which includes a chapter about Noahide prayer:
https://asknoah.org/books/the-divine-code

There are no Torah laws directed to Gentiles about not making interruptions during their prayers.
But out of awe of G-d's surrounding Presence, and honor for one's prayer to Him, there has to be a strong reason for a Gentile to justify making an interruption during his or her prayer or blessing to G-d.
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